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Binomial distribution
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=== Conditional binomials === If ''X'' ~ B(''n'', ''p'') and ''Y'' | ''X'' ~ B(''X'', ''q'') (the conditional distribution of ''Y'', given ''X''), then ''Y'' is a simple binomial random variable with distribution ''Y'' ~ B(''n'', ''pq''). For example, imagine throwing ''n'' balls to a basket ''U<sub>X</sub>'' and taking the balls that hit and throwing them to another basket ''U<sub>Y</sub>''. If ''p'' is the probability to hit ''U<sub>X</sub>'' then ''X'' ~ B(''n'', ''p'') is the number of balls that hit ''U<sub>X</sub>''. If ''q'' is the probability to hit ''U<sub>Y</sub>'' then the number of balls that hit ''U<sub>Y</sub>'' is ''Y'' ~ B(''X'', ''q'') and therefore ''Y'' ~ B(''n'', ''pq''). {{hidden begin|style=width:60%|ta1=center|border=1px #aaa solid|title=[Proof]}} Since <math> X \sim B(n, p) </math> and <math> Y \sim B(X, q) </math>, by the [[law of total probability]], : <math>\begin{align} \Pr[Y = m] &= \sum_{k = m}^{n} \Pr[Y = m \mid X = k] \Pr[X = k] \\[2pt] &= \sum_{k=m}^n \binom{n}{k} \binom{k}{m} p^k q^m (1-p)^{n-k} (1-q)^{k-m} \end{align}</math> Since <math>\tbinom{n}{k} \tbinom{k}{m} = \tbinom{n}{m} \tbinom{n-m}{k-m},</math> the equation above can be expressed as : <math> \Pr[Y = m] = \sum_{k=m}^{n} \binom{n}{m} \binom{n-m}{k-m} p^k q^m (1-p)^{n-k} (1-q)^{k-m} </math> Factoring <math> p^k = p^m p^{k-m} </math> and pulling all the terms that don't depend on <math> k </math> out of the sum now yields : <math>\begin{align} \Pr[Y = m] &= \binom{n}{m} p^m q^m \left( \sum_{k=m}^n \binom{n-m}{k-m} p^{k-m} (1-p)^{n-k} (1-q)^{k-m} \right) \\[2pt] &= \binom{n}{m} (pq)^m \left( \sum_{k=m}^n \binom{n-m}{k-m} \left(p(1-q)\right)^{k-m} (1-p)^{n-k} \right) \end{align}</math> After substituting <math> i = k - m </math> in the expression above, we get : <math> \Pr[Y = m] = \binom{n}{m} (pq)^m \left( \sum_{i=0}^{n-m} \binom{n-m}{i} (p - pq)^i (1-p)^{n-m - i} \right) </math> Notice that the sum (in the parentheses) above equals <math> (p - pq + 1 - p)^{n-m} </math> by the [[binomial theorem]]. Substituting this in finally yields : <math>\begin{align} \Pr[Y=m] &= \binom{n}{m} (pq)^m (p - pq + 1 - p)^{n-m}\\[4pt] &= \binom{n}{m} (pq)^m (1-pq)^{n-m} \end{align}</math> and thus <math> Y \sim B(n, pq) </math> as desired. {{hidden end}}
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