Open main menu
Home
Random
Recent changes
Special pages
Community portal
Preferences
About Wikipedia
Disclaimers
Incubator escapee wiki
Search
User menu
Talk
Dark mode
Contributions
Create account
Log in
Editing
Non-analytic smooth function
(section)
Warning:
You are not logged in. Your IP address will be publicly visible if you make any edits. If you
log in
or
create an account
, your edits will be attributed to your username, along with other benefits.
Anti-spam check. Do
not
fill this in!
===The function is smooth=== The function ''f'' has [[Continuous function|continuous]] [[derivative]]s of all orders at every point ''x'' of the [[real line]]. The formula for these derivatives is :<math>f^{(n)}(x) = \begin{cases}\displaystyle\frac{p_n(x)}{x^{2n}}\,f(x) & \text{if }x>0, \\ 0 &\text{if }x \le 0,\end{cases}</math> where ''p<sub>n</sub>''(''x'') is a [[polynomial]] of [[Degree of a polynomial|degree]] ''n'' − 1 given [[recursion|recursively]] by ''p''<sub>1</sub>(''x'') = 1 and :<math>p_{n+1}(x)=x^2p_n'(x)-(2nx-1)p_n(x)</math> for any positive [[integer]] ''n''. From this formula, it is not completely clear that the derivatives are continuous at 0; this follows from the [[one-sided limit]] :<math>\lim_{x\searrow 0} \frac{e^{-\frac{1}{x}}}{x^m} = 0</math> for any [[nonnegative]] integer ''m''. {{Collapse top|title=Detailed proof of smoothness}} By the [[Exponential function#Formal definition|power series representation of the exponential function]], we have for every [[natural number]] <math>m</math> (including zero) :<math>\frac1{x^m}=x\Bigl(\frac1{x}\Bigr)^{m+1}\le (m+1)!\,x\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{n!}\Bigl(\frac1x\Bigr)^n =(m+1)!\,x e^{\frac{1}{x}},\qquad x>0,</math> because all the positive terms for <math>n \neq m+1</math> are added. Therefore, dividing this inequality by <math>e^{\frac{1}{x}}</math> and taking the [[One-sided limit|limit from above]], :<math>\lim_{x\searrow0}\frac{e^{-\frac{1}{x}}}{x^m} \le (m+1)!\lim_{x\searrow0}x=0.</math> We now prove the formula for the ''n''th derivative of ''f'' by [[mathematical induction]]. Using the [[chain rule]], the [[reciprocal rule]], and the fact that the derivative of the exponential function is again the exponential function, we see that the formula is correct for the first derivative of ''f'' for all ''x'' > 0 and that ''p''<sub>1</sub>(''x'') is a polynomial of degree 0. Of course, the derivative of ''f'' is zero for ''x'' < 0. It remains to show that the right-hand side derivative of ''f'' at ''x'' = 0 is zero. Using the above limit, we see that :<math>f'(0)=\lim_{x\searrow0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\lim_{x\searrow0}\frac{e^{-\frac{1}{x}}}{x}=0.</math> The induction step from ''n'' to ''n'' + 1 is similar. For ''x'' > 0 we get for the derivative :<math>\begin{align}f^{(n+1)}(x) &=\biggl(\frac{p'_n(x)}{x^{2n}}-2n\frac{p_n(x)}{x^{2n+1}}+\frac{p_n(x)}{x^{2n+2}}\biggr)f(x)\\ &=\frac{x^2p'_n(x)-(2nx-1)p_n(x)}{x^{2n+2}}f(x)\\ &=\frac{p_{n+1}(x)}{x^{2(n+1)}}f(x),\end{align}</math> where ''p''<sub>''n''+1</sub>(''x'') is a polynomial of degree ''n'' = (''n'' + 1) − 1. Of course, the (''n'' + 1)st derivative of ''f'' is zero for ''x'' < 0. For the right-hand side derivative of ''f''<sup> (''n'')</sup> at ''x'' = 0 we obtain with the above limit :<math>\lim_{x\searrow0} \frac{f^{(n)}(x) - f^{(n)}(0)}{x-0} = \lim_{x\searrow0} \frac{p_n(x)}{x^{2n+1}}\,e^{-1/x} = 0.</math> {{Collapse bottom}}
Edit summary
(Briefly describe your changes)
By publishing changes, you agree to the
Terms of Use
, and you irrevocably agree to release your contribution under the
CC BY-SA 4.0 License
and the
GFDL
. You agree that a hyperlink or URL is sufficient attribution under the Creative Commons license.
Cancel
Editing help
(opens in new window)