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Polynomial interpolation
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===First proof=== Consider the [[Lagrange polynomials|Lagrange basis functions]] <math>L_0(x),\ldots,L_n(x)</math> given by: <math display="block">L_j(x)=\prod_{i\neq j}\frac{x-x_i}{x_j-x_i} = \frac{(x-x_0)\cdots(x-x_{j-1})(x-x_{j+1})\cdots(x-x_n)} {(x_j-x_0)\cdots(x_j-x_{j-1})(x_j-x_{j+1})\cdots(x_j-x_n)}.</math> Notice that <math>L_j(x)</math> is a polynomial of degree <math>n</math>, and we have <math>L_j(x_k)=0</math> for each <math>j\neq k</math>, while <math>L_k(x_k)=1</math>. It follows that the linear combination: <math display="block">p(x) = \sum_{j=0}^n y_j L_j(x)</math> has <math>p(x_k)=\sum_j y_j \,L_j(x_k) = y_k </math>, so <math>p(x)</math> is an interpolating polynomial of degree <math>n</math>. To prove uniqueness, assume that there exists another interpolating polynomial <math>q(x)</math> of degree at most <math>n</math>, so that <math>p(x_k)=q(x_k)</math> for all <math>k=0,\dotsc,n</math>. Then <math>p(x)-q(x)</math> is a polynomial of degree at most <math>n</math> which has <math>n+1</math> distinct zeros (the <math>x_k</math>). But a non-zero polynomial of degree at most <math>n</math> can have at most <math>n</math> zeros,{{efn|This follows from the [[Factor theorem]] for polynomial division.}} so <math>p(x)-q(x)</math> must be the zero polynomial, i.e. <math>p(x)=q(x)</math>.<ref name="Epperson 2013">{{Cite book |last=Epperson |first=James F. |title=An introduction to numerical methods and analysis |date=2013 |publisher=Wiley |isbn=978-1-118-36759-9 |edition=2nd |location=Hoboken, NJ}}</ref>
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